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The following free sample exams covers Aviation General Knowledge, Radio-Communication, NAVAIDS, Navigation, E6-B, Aviation Flight Dispatcher Operations, Performance Charts, VFR OPS, and Aviation Meteorology. Students are greatly encourage to use these short examinations, in conjunction with class notes and ground school training manuals, for home self-study and for examination preparation.
All Answer can be found in the The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, The Aviation Weather Handbook, Class Notes, CFS , AIM , & FTGU.
Allow yourself time in a quiet environment to cover and review the following questions. Do not rush through it. Use the material available to you. Each question has only one correct answer. 
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GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE
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The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, FTGU, AIM and class notes
 GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE I
1- Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude :
A) Has the right of way.
B) Overtake the lower aircraft on the left.
C) Give way
D) Complete a 360° turn to the right.
2- Blinking runway lights advises vehicles and pedestrians to:
A) Return to the apron.
B) Vacate the runways immediately.
C) Be aware that an emergency is in progress
D) Be aware that an emergency is in progress, hold your position.
3- When making initial contact with a ATC , the pilot of aircraft C‑GFLU will transmit the registration as:
A) Lima ‑ Uniform over.
B) Foxtrot ‑ Lima ‑ Uniform over.
C) Golf ‑ Foxtrot ‑ Lima ‑ Uniform over.
D) Charlie ‑ Golf ‑ Foxtrot ‑ Lima ‑ Uniform over.
4- A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until:
A) The flight is 2,000 feet AGL.
B) 25 NM from the airport.
C) 15 NM from the Control Zone.
D) Clear of the Control Zone.
5- FSS specialist responsibility is to provide:
A) Air traffic control
B) Flight planning service
C) Air traffic service in uncontrolled airspace only
D) Terminal radar service
6- NOTAM are:
A) Available at all FSS
B) Mailed to all pilots
C) Issued for airport facility closures only
D) Valid for 24 hours
7- A pilot requests an intersection take‑off from ATC. If authorized:
A) The controller will always give the remaining runway length
B) The controller will ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take‑off
C) It's PIC responsibility to ensure remaining runway length is sufficient for take‑off
D) Any noise abatement procedures for the runway are automatically cancelled
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE II
1- If a flight plan is not filed, a flight itinerary must be filed
A) For flights proceeding 25 NM or more from the point of origin
B) Only for flights in sparsely settled areas
C) For flights destined to land at aerodromes or places other than the point of origin
D) For all flights
2- With regard to a flight itinerary, the "responsible person" means someone who
A) Has agreed to report the aircraft overdue
B) Is 18 years of age or over
C) Holds an aeronautical licence
D) Has agreed to report the arrival of the aircraft
3- An ATC clearance
A) Is the same as an ATC instruction
B) Does not require acceptance or acknowledgement by the PIC
C) Requires compliance when accepted by the PIC
D) Must be complied with when received by the PIC
4- When confronted with an approaching thunderstorm, a take-off or landing
A) Should be avoided due to sudden windshear/low level turbulence could cause loss of control
B) Is safe if you can see under the thunderstorm through to the other side
C) Should be avoided unless the take-off can be made away from the thunderstorm.
D) Is safe of the thunderstorm is regarded as "light"
5- ATC advises that simultaneous operations (SIRO) are in progress at an airport. Pilots could expect a clearance to
A) Take off over top of an aircraft on an intersecting runway
B) Take off on a specified parallel runway
C) Land and hold short of an intersecting runway
D) Land on a specified parallel runway
6- ADIZ rules normally apply
A) Only to aircraft flying above 12,500 feet
B) Only to aircraft flying at true airspeeds of 180 KT or more
C) Only to all southbound aircraft
D) To all aircraft
7- The selection of a cruising altitude in the Southern Domestic Airspace should be based on the
A) Magnetic track
B) True track
C) True heading
D) Magnetic heading
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE III
1- Propeller reversing, unlike feathering, is prevented from doing so in flight by:
A) Low Pitch Angle Stops
B) Hyrdaulic valve actuator in beta range
C) Throttle stops
D) Counterweights.
2- Rules and regulations pertaining to airline operation applies to air operator with:
A) Aeroplane of 19 000 lbs or more
B) Aeroplane of 150 000 lbs or more
C) Aeroplane of 300 000 lbs or more
D) To any air commercial operations
3- Winglet are used to:
A) Decreases induced drag (wing tip vortices)
B) Decreases fuel burn due to induced drag
C) Increases usefull payload due to lower specific fuel consumption
D) Increases the C.O.G Limit aft of the datum line
4- On some aeroplane CANARD are an intergral part of flight control. They are:
A) Frontal horizontal stabilizer
B) Able to reduce form drag
C) Frontal dynamic elevator
D) Usefull for lateral stability at high angle of attack
5- On a navigation chart, a line drawn on the surface [of the earth] that is both a great circle and a rhumb line, would be:
A) The Equator
B) The South Pole
C) A Lattitude
D) A Longitude
6- The emergency transponder code is:
A) 7700
B) 1400
C) 4000
D) 1200
7- The steeper the angle of bank, the greater the load factor. A 75 degrees turn will produce a load factor of:
A) 2
B) 1.4
C) 1
D) 4
8- The steeper the angle of bank, the greater the load factor. A 45 degrees turn will produce a load factor of:
A) 1.4
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE IV
1- The four forces that acts on an aircraft passes through:
A) The center of gravity
B) The same point
C) The equilibrium
D) The couple
2- As angle of attack increases the:
A) Center of pressure moves forward, and at higher angle of attack it moves back
B) The airspeed decreases
C) Center of pressure moves forward
D) Center of pressures moves forward, and at high angle of attack it moves forward
3- The boundary layer is:
A) A thick layer of air between the laminar flow and the turbulent
B) A type of airfoil
C) A thin layer of air flowing over the airfoil
D) The limit that the air is allowed to flow freely over the wing tip
4- The greater the span of an airfoil in relation to its chord, the:
A) Less induced drag
B) Less parasite drag
C) More induced drag
D) More parasite drag
5- Load factor is:
A) The ratio of the load supported by the aircraft wings to the actual weight of the aircraft and its content
B) The ratio between the wings loading and aircraft weight
C) The ratio of the weight of the aircraft and its content to the forces exerted on it
D) The difference between the forces acting on an aircraft and its weight in flight
6 - Slots and Slats are used to:
A) Improve lateral control
B) Smooth-out the airflow at high angle of attack
C) Permit an increase of angle of attack before reaching the stall
D) All of the above
7- Flaps are use to:
A) Give an increase in wing camber and increase lift
B) Give better take-off performance and steeper/lower approach angles & lower landing speed
C) Slow down the aircraft speed
D) Facilitate optimum descent without decreasing power
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE V
1- The global GPS system consists of a:
A) Constellation of 26 satellites orbiting the earth
B) Constellation of 146 satellites orbiting the earth
C) Constellation of 264 satellites orbiting the earth
D) Constellation of 364 satellites orbiting the earth
2- GPS transmit information on:
A) UHF
B) LF
C) ULF
D) Microwave
3- A tree-dimensional fix can be achieved by receiving signal from:
A) 4 Satellites
B) 44 satellites
C) 444 Satellites
D) 1 Satellites
4- GPS system will work anywhere on earth, as long as the satellites are:
A) In line of sight (LOS) of the receiver
B) In the proper orbith (PRO) over the pole
C) Included the appropriate transponder code
D) The receiver is certify by MOT
5- Satellites outage are announced:
A) By GPS NOTAM
B) Are not announced
C) By ICAO circular
D) Under MOT supervision
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE VI
1- A rhumb line crosses:
A) Meridians of longitude
B) Degrees of longitude
C) Degress of latitude
D) Degrees of magnetic variation in the western hemisphere
2- The prime meridian is designated:
A) 00 degrees of Longitude
B) 00 degrees of Lattitude
C) Degress of latitude
D) Degrees of magnetic variation in the western hemisphere
3- The diffrence between True North and Magnetic North is called:
A) Variation
B) Deviation
C) Meridian
D) Isotherm
4- Squawk 7600 indicates to ATC:
A) Communication Failure
B) Transponder failure
C) Instrument failure
D) In fligth emergency
5- The transponder is transmitting MODE C:
A) When "ALT" is selected
B) When " TST" is selected
C) When "STDBY" is selected
D) When "IDENT" is selected
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
GENERAL AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE VII
1- Rain falling on the windshield of an aeroplane causes a distortion that will make a hilltop ˝ mile ahead appear:
A) To be 2 Miles further away than it actually is
B) To be 200 feet higher than it actually is
C) To be 200 feet lower than it actually is
D) To be Ľ mile closer than it actually is
2- A person may take-off with frost adhering to the underside of the wings:
A) Never
B) Only if produce by cold-soaked fuel and under the aircraft manufacturers instructions
C) Yes, since the wing underside are not considered “critical surface”
D) None of the above
3- No person shall operated an aircraft at speed of _______ below 10 000 feet
A) Not applicable. This regulation has been revoked
B) 210 KIAS
C) 250 Knots Indicated Airspeed
D) 200 Knots True Airspeed
4- Visual illusions on approach for landing include:
A) Slopping terrain, Up/Down slope runway, and wide runway
B) Slopping terrain, Up/Down slope runway, Wide runway, Steep surrounding
C) Slopping terrain, and Up/Down slope runway
D) Narrow runway, and Sloping terrain
E) VASI / PAPI, Sloping terrain, Poor visibility, Steep surrounding and Runway width
5- What are the advantages of a VOR?
A) Magnetic bearing to the station is provided and the sensing needle provides wind drift
B) Fly a straight without worrying about compass corrections, variations and deviations.
C) Broadcast voice information, position sensitive, provides magnetic heading to the station and VOR are not affected by terrain effect
D) Automatically corrects for wind direction and magnetic variation
E) None of the above
6- What are the disadvantages of a VOR?
A) Restricted to line of sight (LOS), area overlap and topographical features
B) Terrain error effect
C) Receiver error and ground station error
D) All the above
E) None of the above
7- ADF Homing is accomplished by:
A) Selecting the proper bearing to track to the station
B) Maintaining a steady heading
C) Keeping the needle on the 0 degree mark if inbound or on the 180 degrees if outbound
D) By using the azimuth card and keeping the needle centre
E) N one of the above
8- The basic gyroscopic instruments are:
A) Airspeed indicator, Heading indicator, Turn co-ordinator and Vertical Speed Indicator
B) Compass, Heading indicator, Attitude indicator and Vertical speed indicator
C) Heading indicator, Attitude indicator, Turn co-ordinator
D) Heading indicator, Attitude indicator, Turn co-ordinator, Airspeed indicator
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
HUMAN FACTORS
1- A flight crew member aware of being under a physical disability that might invalidate licence issue or renewal, should:
A) So advise the Minister.
B) Not commence a flight as a crew member.
C) Forward the licence to the Regional Aviation Medical Officer.
D) Fly as crew member only if a back‑up member is available.
2- Damage to the ear drum in flight is most likely to occur
A) During a climb.
B) During a descent.
C) When using supplementary oxygen.
D) After SCUBA diving.
3- Flight crew members who require decompression stops on the way to the surface when SCUBA diving should not fly for
A) 4 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 12 hours.
D) 24 hours.
4- With regard to fatigue, which statement is correct according to the "Medical Information" section of the A.I.P./ AIM Canada?
A) Financial or family problems do not influence tolerance to fatigue.
B) Fatigue slows reaction time and causes foolish inattentive errors.
C) A fatigued person recuperates more quickly as altitude is gained.
D) A fatigued person must have food immediately before and during flight.
5- A pilot who has donated blood should not act as a flight crew member for at least:
A) 12 hours.
B) 24 hours.
C) 36 hours.
D) 48 hours.
6- Any pilot who has had a general anaesthetic should not act as a flight crew member
A) During the next 12 hrs.
B) During the next 36 hrs.
C) During the next 48 hrs.
D) Unless advised it is safe to do so by a doctor.
7- Relatively small amounts of alcohol affect tolerance to hypoxia. This tolerance
A) Deteriorates with increase of altitude.
B) Improves with increase of altitude.
C) Is not affected by altitude change.
D) Remains constant to 6,000 feet ASL.
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
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The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, AIM, FTGU, and class notes
RADIO COMMUNICATION I
1- Urgency signal indicates the station calling has a _______to transmit.
A) Very urgent message
B) Emergency message
C) Priority message
D) None of the above
2- The broadcast of “PAN PAN" means:
A) Its a priority call
B) Its a urgent message
C) Its an emergency call
D) None of the above
3- The _____ signal has priority over all other communications.
A) Emergency, except urgency message
B) Urgency, except distress message
C) Priority, except emergency message
D) None of the above
4- The aeronautical emergency frequency is:
A) 426 MHz
B) 126.7 MHz
C) 121.5 MHz
D) 122.5 Mhz
5- On-the-air- radio test, when necessary, should be:
A) Conducted by a technician
B) At least three minutes long to ensure they need not be repeated
C) Should be short (No more then 10 seconds)
D) Conducted using the ICAO phonetic alphabet only
6- The correct procedure to say altitude is “4500 feet” to ATC/FSS is :
A) Four thousand fife zero zero feet
B) Four thousand fife hundred feet
C) Four point fife feet
D) Forty fife hundred feet
7- A UNICOM is a:
A) Private Advisory service at an uncontrolled airport
B) Radio-communication relay service at uncontrolled airport
C) Radio-communication for aircraft in flight and FSS
D) Radio-communication advisory services for active runway
Copyright (C) BDA 2001
RADIO COMMUNICATION II
1 - A Frequency is:
A) A linear movement of a crest at is peak during broadcast
B) A unit of measurement in meters of the amplitude of the wave length
C) The number of cycles per second of time
D) The periods at which time amplitude modulation of the wave cycles measured in meters per second
2- VLF frequency is expressed in:
A) Meters per second
B) Kilohertz
C) Megahertz
D) Gigahertz
3- VHF frequency is expressed in:
A) Meters per minutes
B) Kilohertz
C) Megahertz
D) In international alphabet
4- NDB and marker beacons transmit navigation signals on the ___ bands.
A) LF / MF
B) UHF / VHF
C) LF / UHF
D) FFF / VFF
5- The ground waves follow the surface of the earth, by nature it travels :
A) By bouncing-off low clouds
B) Erratically
C) Over a very short distance
D) In a straight line
6- Sky waves travel up into the atmosphere and are reflected back to earth from:
A) Ionosphere
B) Clouds
C) Aurora Borealis
D) Troposphere
7- To use the omnirange facilities, the aircraft must be equipped with:
A) A VHF receiver, a VOR indicator and an antenna
B) A VOR Indicator and an antenna
C) A VOR receiver, a VOR transmitter and a VHF Receiver
D) A powerful, static free receiver, a VOR Indicator and an antenna
Copyright (C) BDA 2001
RADIO COMMUNICATION III
1- Transponder permits positive identification of aircraft to ATC. Mode C provides :
A) Position and altitude information
B) Position and airspeed information
C) Position and speed only
D) Altitude, position and airspeed information
2- You experience a communication failure in Class B or C airspace in VFR flight,
you would :
A) Select 7600 and land as soon as possible
B) Select 7600 on the transponder, comply with NORDO procedures and land at the
Nearest and most suitable aerodrome
C) Select 7700 on the transponder, comply with NORDO procedures and return to the departures aerodrome for landing, aircraft with communication failure have priority
D) Select 7500 on the transponder, follow NORDO procedures
3- DME is a navaid that:
A) Measure aircraft distance from another in flight for conflict avoidance
B) Measure aircraft altitude over the station
C) Measures aircraft distance from the station
D) Measures aircraft distance and altitude from VORTAC and NDB stations along your flight
4- VOR stations:
A) Transmit weather forecast at 0600 and 1800 UTC
B) Can transmit voice and morse-code identifier
C) Transmit on the low frequency range
D) Transmit morse-code identifier only
5- When you overfly an NDB :
A) The ADF needle swings back and forth at station passage
B) The ADF point opposite the station
C) The ADF needle swings from the 12 o’clock position to the 6 o’clock position
D) The needle does not move
6- The VOR indicator combines three functions:
A) Receiver, Transmitter, Heading Indicator
B) Bearing selector, Receiver, TO/FROM indicator
C) TO/FROM indicator, Transmitter, Heading indicator
D) Bearing selector, Course deviation indicator, TO/FROM indicator
7- High Frequency (HF) is very useful for:
A) Short, line-of-sight communication
B) long distance. It is the only way to maintain constant contact at ranges of
2500 miles or more and on trans-oceanic flights.
C) Rarely used due to its limited range and carrier (voice) capacity
D) Non-directional beacons and Northern area operations
Copyright (C) BDA 2001
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The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, Class Notes and FTGU
NAVIGATION & INSTRUMENT I
Using the following formula(s) resolve the following navigation problems:
* Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = Track to the station
* Time to the station = Time (in Seconds) divided by/ Bearing Change
* Navaid Receiving Range = 1.23 X Square root of Altitude
* Degrees needed to do Rate 1 Turn (RR1) = IAS divided by 10 = + 7 = Degrees Needed
1-Your magnetic heading (MH) is 270 and your relative bearing (RB) is 030. Your track to the station will be:
A) 240 Degrees Magnetic
B) 300 Degrees Magnetic
C) 120 Degrees Magnetic
D) 120 Degrees true
2- Your MH is 354 and your RB to the station is 090. Your track to fly to the station would be:
A) 084 Degrees Magnetic
B) 084 Degrees True
C) 074 Degrees Magnetic
D) 260 Degrees Magnetic
3- Your MH is 230 and your RB to the station is 175. Your track to fly to the NDB would be:
A) 045 Degrees Magnetic
B) 175 Degrees Magnetic
C) 305 Degrees Magnetic
D) 315 Degrees Magnetic
4- Your MH is 218 and your RB is 235. Your track to the station is:
A) 083 Degrees Magnetic
B) 073 Degrees Magnetic
C) 240 Degrees Magnetic
D) 093 Degrees Magnetic
5- Your MH is 340 and your RB is 180. Your track from the station would be:
A) 160 Degrees Magnetic
B) 180 Degrees Magnetic
C) 340 Degrees Magnetic
D) 150 Degrees Magnetic
NAVIGATION & INSTRUMENT II
1- While in flight you alter your heading by 10 degrees for 4 minutes to maintain track inbound to the NDB. How long do you have to fly before experiencing “station passage” ?
A) 2.5 Minutes
B) 165 Knots Indicated Airspeed
C) 24 Minutes
D) 10 Minutes
2- You progress toward the NDB intersection and you must alter your heading by 5 degrees for 6 minutes due to light cross-wind. How long will it take you to reach the NDB ?
A) 6 Minutes
B) 11 Minutes
C) 72 Minutes
D) 112 Minutes
3- You intercept the Perro VOR and to maintain track inbound you adjust your heading by 2 degrees for 1 minute. What will be your time to the station?
A) 2 Minutes
B) 3 Minutes
C) 30 Minutes
D) 30 Seconds
4- You are departing an aerodrome and are tracking inbound to the Yankee NDB. Due to strong cross-wind and poor pilot technique you alter your heading by 5 degrees for 5 minutes to maintain your inbound track. How long will it be before you get “station passage”?
A) 3 Minutes
B) 30 Minutes
C) 1 Hour
D) 6 Minutes
NAVIGATION & INSTRUMENT III
1- You are flying to ta VOR at 6000 feet ASL. How far can you be, to positively receive the VOR signal ?
A) 77 NM
B) 12 NM
C) 102 NM
D) 95 NM
2- You are following a (VOR) radial inbound to the airport. Your present altitude is 5500 feet ASL . When can you receive and rely on the VOR signal?
A) 91.2 NM
B) 76.1 NM
C) 34.4 NM
D) 12.8 NM
3- You have reach your cruising altitude of 9500 feet ASL when you decide to tuned in and track inbound on the DASS NDB. At what distance can you receive a strong, reliable signal from the NDB ?
A) 119.8 NM
B) 77.8 NM
C) 2 NM
D) 103.7 NM
NAVIGATION & INSTRUMENT IV
1- You are flying at 73 knots Indicated airspeed when you have been instructed by ATC to turn left using a standard rate1 turn. What would be the degrees of bank required to accomplished this ?
A) 3 Degrees
B) 10.3 Degrees
C) 14.3 Degrees
D) 15.3 Degrees
2- You are flying a high performance aeroplane and approaching the Vne of 300 KIAS. You are cleared to enter a standard right hand holding pattern. How many degrees of bank are required to maintained a rate 1 turn ?
A) 17 Degrees
B) 27 Degrees
C) 37 Degrees
D) 15 Degrees
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
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Class Notes, Hand-out and FTGU
E6-B NAVIGATION I
Using the computer side of your E6-B Flight computer, answer the following questions;
1- Assume the aeroplane airspeed is 150 KIAS and distance to destination is 245 NM. Time en-route will be:
A) 1 hour 40 minutes
B) 1 hour 35 minutes
C) 1 hour 38 minutes
D) 1 hour 10 minutes
2- The aeroplane fuel endurance is 4.5 hours. The aeroplane ground speed is 125 Knots. How far can the aeroplane go?
A) 564 NM
B) 500 NM
C) 561 SM
D) 5000 NM
3- An aeroplane has just flown between two point on the ground that are 26 NM apart It took 13 minutes to cover that distance. What is the ground speed?
A) 260 Knots
B) 120 Knots
C) 110 Knots
D) 118 Knots
4- The aeroplane burns 8.4 gallons an hour. The usable fuel capacity is 64 gallons. How many hours of flight [endurance] does it have?
A) 6 hours 40 minutes
B) 7 hours 37 minutes
C) 5 hours 29 minutes
D) 8 hours 50 minutes
E6-B NAVIGATION II
1- The pressure altitude is 14 000 feet, the outside air temperature is +5C and the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is 160 KCAS. What is the TAS and the density altitude?
A) 276 Knots TAS / 20 500 feet
B) 174 Knots TAS / 9 800 feet
C) 204 Knots TAS / 16 000 feet
D) None of the above
2- The pressure altitude is 20 000 feet, the outside air temperature is –20C and calibrated airspeed (CAS) is 200 KCAS. What is the TAS and the density altitude?
A) 174 Knots TAS / 24 000 feet
B) 276 Knots TAS / 20 500 feet
C) 280 Knots TAS / 20 650 feet
D) 189 Knots TAS / 20 000 feet
3- The pressure altitude is 8 000 feet, the outside air temperature is 15C and the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is 150 KCAS. What is the TAS and the density altitude?
A) 204 Knots / 20 500 feet
B) 170 Knots / 9 800 feet
C) 500 Knots / 7 500 feet
D) 174 Knots / 9 800 feet
4- On a True course calculation, you have a 19 degree east of variation. You would:
A) Add the variation to your True course
B) Subtract the variation to your true course
C) You would not do anything since it as nothing to do with it
D) None of the above
E6-B NAVIGATION III
1- Your true track is 068 degrees and your TAS is 105 KIAS. The winds aloft are 345 at 20. Your true heading would be:
A) 101 KIAS
B) 057 Degrees
C) 079 Degrees
D) 100 KIAS
2- Your true track is 345 degrees and your TAS is 90 KIAS. The winds aloft are 290 at 45. What is your ground speed?
A) 90 Knots
B) 88 Knots
C) 69 Knots
D) 56 Knots
3- You are planning to fly to Grande-Prairie on a track of 323 degrees at an indicated airspeed of 105 Knots. The winds forecast for your altitude are from 010 at 25 Knots. What is your true heading?
A) 334 degrees
B) 312 degrees
C) 304 degrees
D) 332 degrees
4- In reference to question 3, what would be your ground speed?
A) 86 Knots
B) 87 Knots
C) 89 Knots
D) 78 Knots
E6-B NAVIGATION IV
Using the circular slide rule side of your E6-B Flight computer, answer the following questions:
1- Your aircraft burns 6.8 gallons per hour at cruising speed (75% power). The time from levelled-off to your first checkpoint 20 NM away is 31 minutes. How many gallons have your burned so far?
A) 2.2 gallons
B) 3.5 gallons
C) 2.7 gallons
D) 7.0 gallons
2- Once established at my cruising altitude of 7500, I calculated the density altitude for efficiency and performance of the aircraft. The OAT (outside air temperature gauge) is indicating –15C. What is the corresponding density altitude?
A) 5500 feet
B) 6900 feet
C) 8100 feet
D) 7500 feet
(C) BDA Flight Training 2007
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The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, Class Notes, CFS, & FTGU
AIR NAVIGATION I
1- By noting the distance between check point and keeping track of time, you will be able to:
A) Find the latitude
B) Find the longitude
C) Measure estimated time remaining to destination
D) Find the groundspeed
2- To find groundspeed you would:
A) Divide the distance flown by the time.
B) Divide distance by speed over ground
C) Multiply speed over ground by time
D) Multiply time by distance covered
3- What is true airspeed?
A) Aircraft speed as indicated by the instruments
B) Aircraft speed relative to the air. It is calibrated airspeed corrected for the
airspeed indicator error due to density and temperature
C) Aircraft speed relative to the ground
D) The absolute speed of the aircraft flying into the air and compensated by
humidity, temperature, compressibility, density and altitude factors
4- True track is 302 Degrees, The winds is 240 Degrees true at 30 Knots and the
true airspeed of the aircraft is 105 knots. What is the heading to steer and groundspeed
A) 288 Degrees & 87 Knots groundspeed
B) 316 Degrees & 68 Knots groundspeed
C) 316 Degrees & 98 Knots groundspeed
D) 268 Degrees & 82 Knots groundspeed
5- What is Density Altitude?
A) Density corrected for temperature
B) Pressure at altitude corrected for temperature
C) Altitude corrected for pressure
D) Formula to know difference between ground and flight levels
6- DME displays the distance between the airplane and ground transmitting station as :
A) Altitude plus ground distance
B) Ground distance
C) Slant range
D) A DME arc
7- Aircraft equipped with DME would experience the greatest slant range error when flying at a distance of:
A) High altitude and long distance from the station
B) High altitude and short distance from the station
C) Low altitude and long distance from the station
D) Low altitude and short distance from the station
Copyright (C) BDA 2002
AIR NAVIGATION II
 
Click on picture for larger view
1- In the above diagram, who is the operator of CYXE
A) The city of Saskatoon
B) The province of Saskatchewan
C) The federal government
D) The Saskatoon airport authority
2- What is the highest point at the airport?
A) 1653 feet
B) 1718 feet
C) 1758 feet
D) 8300 feet
3- Is Jet fuel available ?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only between 12-14Z
D) Only between 14-06Z
4- To get a weather briefing, a PIC would:
A) Call Edmonton FIC
B) Use the PIK
C) Call YXE FSS
D) Call Lockhart Aviation Services
5- Is custom available at the airport ?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only between 12-14Z with advance notice
D) Only between 14-06Z with advance notice
6- Is fire-fighting equipment available at the airport ?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only between 12-14Z
D) Only between 14-06Z
Copyright (C) BDA 2005
AIR NAVIGATION III
Click on picture for larger view
1- What is the magnetic deviation at CYQF
A) 15.5 degrees north
B) 17 degrees east
C) 17 degrees west
D) 13 degrees east
2- What is the highest obstacle clearance altitude ?
A) 4300 feet
B) 4400 feet
C) 2968 feet
D) 3088 feet
4- Is custom available at the airport ?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only between 15-04Z
D) Only between 15-24Z
5- Where is the weather kiosk located
A) Red-Deer terminal
B) Red-Deer Pilot Lounge
C) Executive Flight Center
D) Red-Deer FSS
6- What is the meaning of the (V) symbol beside RWY 16/34
A) Arresting cable available
B) Helicopters landing area
C) High Intensity Approach Lights
D) VASIS
7- To File an IFR clearance you would contact:
A) Red-Deer Radio 118.5
B) Edmonton Radio 122.5
C) Edmonton Center 123.4
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2005
AIR NAVIGATION IV
Click on picture for larger view
1- Where is the highest obstacle clearance altitude ?
A) North West
B) North East
C) South West
D) South East
2- Is custom available at the airport?
A) Yes between 11-02Z Mon-Fri 13-02Z
B) No
C) Yes between 13-02Z
D) Available in London only
3- What kind of fuel is available at the airport ?
A) 100 unleaded
B) Jet-A
C) No fuel available
D) 100 LL and JA-1
4- Aerodrome lighting is by pilot remote control activation
A) Yes
B) No
C) On 122.5
D) RWY lighting is activated by the tower only
5- What is the definition of AOE/30
A) Aerodrome elevation is 30 meters ASL
B) Airport of entry, 30 minutes prior notification required
C) Airport Obstacle Elevation is 30 feet AGL within 5 NM
D) Airport of entry, 30 passenger capacity limitation
6- What is the dimension of the Aerodrome Traffic Frequency ?
A) 5 NM, 3300 ASL
B) 5 SM, 3300 ASL
C) ATF has no dimension, only frequency
D) ATF frequency 122.5 between 04-11:15Z
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
AIR NAVIGATION V
Click on picture for larger view
1- What type of chart is depicted?
A) SID
B) STAR
C) Area Chart
D) Approach Plate
2- What type of NAVAID is the FAF?
A) VOR
B) DME
C) NDB
D) GPS
3- What is the altitude for the touch down zone (TDZ)?
A) 1354 feet
B) 1554 feet
C) 1660 feet
D) 1780 feet
4- What is the safe altitude for all quadrants?
A) 3000 feet
B) 3100 feet
C) 1960 feet
D) 4500 feet
5- What is the frequency for Thunder Bay Radio?
A) 122.1
B) 118.5
C) 126.7
D) 122.5
6- Which RWY is depicted on this chart?
A) RWY 290
B) RWY 110
C) RWY 011
D) None depicted
7- What is the frequency for the DME and NDB
A) 413 and 109.7
B) 413 and 122.1
C) 413 and Ch 84
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
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Flight Dispatcher Handbook, Class Notes, FTGU and AIM
NAVAID I
1- The airway radio communication facilities and radio navigation aids (NAVAID) operate in the
A) LF / MF / FF / VHF and UVHF band
B) LF / MF / HF/ VHF and UHF band
C) 121.5 / 126.7 / 123.2 / 122.2 and 119.4 frequencies
D) Low / Medium / High / Super high and Microwave
2- The non-directional beacons (NDB) and marker beacons transmit on:
A) LF / MF band
B) UHF / VHF band
C) LF / UHF band
D) FFF / VFF band
3- High Frequency (HF) is very useful for:
A) Short, line-of-sight communication
B) Long distance. It can maintain constant contact at ranges of
2500 miles or more and on trans-ocean flights.
C) Rarely use due to its limited range and carrier (voice) capacity
D) Northern area operations
4- To use the omnirange facilities, the aeroplane must be equipped with:
A) A VHF receiver, a VOR indicator and an antenna
B) A VOR Indicator and an antenna
C) A VOR receiver, a VOR transmitter and a VHF Receiver
D) A powerful static free receiver, a VOR Indicator and an antenna
5- The VOR indicator combines 3 functions:
A) Receiver, Transmitter, Heading Indicator
B) Bearing selector, Receiver, TO/FROM indicator
C) TO/FROM indicator, Transmitter, Heading indicator
NAVAID II
1- Thunderstorm effect causes the ADF needle to:
A) Be deflected toward a nearby electrical storm
B) Be deflected away from an electrical storm
C) Remain accurate
D) Point to the last NDB station
2- What is magnetic dip?
A) The effect the vertical component of the earth magnetic field has on the compass needle
B) The effect the vertical component of the earth magnetic field has on the compass card
C) The effect the vertical component of the earth magnetic field has on the compass heading
D) Vertical movement within the compass casing
3- VOR Radials are referenced to:
A) Magnetic North
B) True North
C) Compass heading
D) Radio beacon
4- Coastal effect on NDB signal causes it to:
A) Bend slightly toward the coast line when crossing it at an angle
B) Bend slightly away from coast line when crossing it at an angle
C) Amplify the NDB signal
D) Point to the last NDB station
5- LORAN-C operates from transmitter broadcasting signal in the ____ frequency
A) LF
B) HF
C) VHF
D) UHF
NAVAID III
1- To verify a VOR receiver on the ground a pilots would use a VOT if one is available.When tuning in the frequency and selecting the 180 degrees radial the needle would:
A) Center with a FROM indication
B) Center with a TO indication
C) Center with a maximum bearing error of +/-4 degrees
D) Full deflection from right to left within +/-4 degrees
2- When a VOT is not available, a pilot on an IFR flight can still verify the serviceability of the VOR by:
A) Asking a technician to test the equipment before flight
B) Tune both VOR receivers to the station located on or near the airport and note the
indication TO the station within the permissible bearing difference of +/-4 degrees
C) Tune both VOR receivers to the station located on or near the airport and note the
indication TO the station within the permissible bearing difference of +/-8 degrees
D) Tune the VOR receivers to a station located at or near the airport and note the
Indication FROM the station within the permissible bearing difference of +/-4 degrees
3- To verify an ILS system before departure, tune in the frequency and observe the
instrument localiser indicator for correct movement and also note:
A) The needle should center with a GP flag indication
B) No needle movement since the receiver is too close to the station
C) The needle will be alive and remain in movement
D) The needle will fully deflect from high to low and with a warning flag indication
4- To verify the ADF on the ground you would tune in the NDB frequency, listen to
the identifier and:
A) Observe the swing of the needle for a full rotation
B) Observe the swing of the needle for a full rotation and the needle should eventually
point in the general direction of the station
C) Observe for full rotation of the needle followed by a reverse indication
D) None of the above
5- The ADF is based on the concept of:
A) The needle always point to the station
B) The needle indicate your course deviation in relation to the station
C) The needle indicate the relative radial to the station
D) The needle provides indication of aircraft orientation
6- An aeropplane is on a magnetic heading of 030 degrees and the ADF needle is 090 degrees to the right, the magnetic bearing to the station is:
A) Missing the DG indication to find the new heading
B) 060 Degrees
C) 120 Degrees
D) 030 Degrees
7- On a NDB holding pattern the ADF needle will start oscillating as you get near the station. Passing over the station the needle will commence a definite swing to the right or left, at this point you would:
A) Wait until the needle has turn around to verify station passage, note the time and start timing the outbound leg
B) Note the time and start timing the outbound leg
C) Note the time, turn to the outbound leg on a rate one turn to the left and start timing
D) Determine which side of the bearing you are now situated, note the time and start the turn
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
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FLIGHT DISPATCHER & OPERATIONS
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The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, Class Notes
FD & OPERATIONS I
1- It is the ____ legal responsibility to see the MTOW of the aircraft is not exceeded
A) Ground crew lead
B) Flight operation manager
C) Flight Dispatcher
D) Pilot in command
2- An overloaded aircraft will require a ______ take-off run.
A) Longer
B) Shorter
C) Same runway distance
D) Will not get airborne
3- A headwind would shorten the landing roll, because:
A) The descent path is steeper and the ground speed is reduced
B) The descent path is shallow
C) Lift is increased and true airspeed is increased
D) Lift is decreased and true airspeed is decreased
4- The landing distance at a high elevation airport on a hot day would be:
A) Short, due to dry air and high elevation
B) Long, due to high elevation, high temperature and lower air density
C) Long, due to high elevation, high temperature and higher air density
D) Short, due to high elevation, higher air density and shallow descent path
5- Diverting to an alternate may be caused by:
A) Pilot lost, fuel contamination, carb ice and/or electrical malfunction
B) Pilot lost, weather below minimum, passenger illness, aircraft system malfunctions
C) Pilot lost, weather below minimum, and in-flight emergencies
D) None of the above
6- What does “minimum fuel” means to ATC?
A) Emergency landing is required to the nearest suitable airport
B) Aircraft is flying on fuel reserve
C) Advisory that an emergency situation is possible should a delay occur
D) Advisory that an urgency situation could develop should a delay occur
E) None of the above
7- Aircraft accident reporting procedures can be found in the:
A) Canada shipping act
B) Canada Flight Supplement
C) Canada Flight Supplement and AIM
D) AIM
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD & OPERATIONS II
1- When an aircraft is clear of a control zone, the PIC would :
A) Report “Clear of the zone” to the proper ATC unit
B) Contact “ATC VFR Advisory” and report “Clear of the zone”
C) Not have to report “Clear of the zone”
D) None of the above
2- When a control tower closes for the night, the airspace changes to :
A) FSS operated Class B airspace
B) Remains Class C airspace, but operated by an FSS station
C) It changes to Class D airspace
D) It changes to Class E airspace
3- Automated Terminal Information Service:
A) Provided weather, wind and visibility information on a recorded, continuously broadcast message for control airports
B) Provided weather and runway information for control airports on a recorded message
C) Is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning local airports operations
D) Is the continuous broadcast of recorded relevant information for arriving and departing aircraft for a particular airport
4- VFR weather minima in control zone are:
A) 5 SM Visibility, 500 feet vertically from cloud and 1 SM horizontally from cloud
B) 3 SM Visibility, 1000 feet vertically from cloud and 500 feet vertically from ground
C) 3 SM Visibility, 500 feet vertically from cloud, 1 SM horizontally from cloud
and 500 feet vertically from ground
D) 1 SM Visibility, 500 feet vertically from cloud and 500 feet vertically from ground
5- Where would the PIC find proper ATC frequencies in flight?
A) Aeronautical Information Manual
B) Canada Flight Supplement or on the appropriate aeronautical chart
C) Canadian Air Pilot handbook
D) By contacting FSS on 126.7
6- VDF steer is a procedure that uses VHF transmission from the aircraft to :
A) Assist aircraft trough poor visibility and clouds
B) Provide steering, bearing and homing information to the aircraft in flight
C) Provide distance from station or beacon information to the aircraft in SVFR conditions
D) Verify accuracy of aircraft radio-navigation equipment, on request from the pilot
7- An ATF is used to:
A) Broadcast aircraft position when overflying uncontrolled airports
B) Broadcast PIREP in sparsely settled regions
C) Aircraft are using the same frequency at uncontrolled aerodromes
D) Aircraft are using the same frequency when taxiing on the active runway
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD & OPERATIONS III
1- What is a flight dispatcher?
A) Supervise weather for all airborne flights and amend flight route as required
B) Advised pilots of alternate aerodrome if required, and calculate flaps setting and point of no return (PNR) for the flights, based on fuel remaining and reserve
C) Calculate the total cargo weight and passenger total load (if applicable) for MTOW as published in the approved AFM
D) Responsible for safe and efficient operational control of the flight in collaboration with the PIC
2- The flight dispatcher is also responsible for:
A) Operational control and safety
B) Aircrew briefing and emergency
C) Flight planning and weight & balance calculation
D) All of the above
3- The authority for Ops Control is shared:
A) Solely between the PIC and the Flight Dispatcher
B) Solely between the PIC and Flight Ops manager
C) Solely within the cockpit crew
D) Air Operator
4- Flight dispatcher does not address one of the following:
A) Alternate changes
B) Crew scheduling
C) Field Conditions
D) Slot times
5- After the OFP has been accepted, the PIC:
A) Is solely responsible for flight watch
B) Must report every 2 hours
C) And the flight dispatcher shared responsibility for flight safety
D) Is not allowed to deviate from the prescribe route
6- Flight Dispatcher recurrent training takes place:
A) Every 24 months
B) Every 36 months
C) Every 48 months
D) Every 12 months
7- The difference between TYPE A and TYPE B is:
A) Aircraft having 20 or more passenger for A
B) Aircraft having 20 or less passenger for B
C) Complex operations for A
D) Complex operation for B
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD & OPERATIONS IV
1- What is a MMEL ?
A) It allows the dispatch of aircraft with inop equipment
B) An approved document created to regulate dispatch of an aircraft with inop equipment
C) Allows operations of aircraft with inop equipment as approved by the Minister
D) Allows Air Operators 30 days to rectify inop equipment on board aircraft
E) None of the above
2- For a designated alternate aerodrome, the minimum weather requirement include:
A) Destination is served by a TAF
B) A forecast ceiling of at least 1000 feet above anticipated approach FAF
C) Visibility of at least 3 miles
D) No risk of fog forecast or reported
E) All of the above
3- Fuel requirement to reach the alternate aerodrome must be sufficient to:
A) Reach the alternate
B) Reach the alternate and hold at 1 500 feet above alternate
C) Reach the alternate and hold at 1 500 feet above alternate for a period of 30 minutes at
holding speed
D) Reach the alternate and hold at 1 500 feet above alternate for a period of 30 minutes at
holding speed, and execute one approach and one missed approach before diverting to
2nd alternate
E) None of the above
4- An air operator may assign a flight crew member flight time that will exceed the flight time limitation:
A) If the flight crew member accept such an assignment
B) Flight crew member cannot accept such an assignment
C) If authorised in the AOC
D) If the flight crew member accept such an assignment and authorised in the AOC
E) None of the above
5- The operation of a CVR requires that:
A) It must be operated continuously
B) Can be operated for a maximum of 90 days after CVR failure
C) CVR is operated continuously from time electrical power is first provided to the
recorder, to the time the electrical power is removed from the recorder after flight
D) CVR must be operated continuously after brake release until electrical powered is
removed from the recorder or aircraft
E) None of the above
6- Aircraft operating commercially either VFR or IFR:
A) Must have the static pressure system tested every 24 months
B) Must have the static pressure system tested every 12 months
C) Must have the transponder system tested every 24 months
D) Must have the ELT system tested every 36 months
E) None of the above
7- Under a Type C system, the ____ is solely responsible for flight watch
A) PIC
B) Flight Dispatcher
C) Flight Follower
D) Flight Ops Manager
E) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD & OPERATIONS V
 
Click on picture for larger view
Using the above graph, calculate the proper weight and balance for this aircraft, assuming
the aircraft Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) is 2300 lbs, and:
*Aircraft empty weight and moment (1454 lbs and 57.6)
*Fuel for the planned flight is 35 US gallons
*Pilot is 185 lbs
*Front passenger is 225 lbs
*Rear passenger is 205 lbs
*Baggage area 1 is loaded with 40 lbs of cargo
*Baggage area 2 is empty
1- The total loaded aircraft for this flight would be:
A) 2219 lbs
B) 2248 lbs
C) 2279 lbs
D) 2319 lbs
2- Can the aircraft legally be dispatch for the proposed flight loaded as proposed above?
A) Yes
B) Only if PIC accept and signs the Dispatch Release
C) No
D) Only under specific authorization from the Minister
3- The aircraft center of gravity would be:
A) Slightly aft
B) Aft
C) Slightly forward
D) Forward
E) Neutral
4- What would you do to lighten the load, if that is the case?
A) Remove cargo
B) Remove rear passenger
C) Remove 20 lbs from the cargo load
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD & OPERATIONS VI
1- The purpose of the VDF installation is to provide:
A) Directional assistance to VFR aircraft
B) Radar assistance
C) Remote directional heading to IFR and VFR aircraft
D) None of the above
2- The VHF/UHF Airway width is:
A) 4 NM on either side of the center line of the airway
B) 4 SM on either side of the center line of the airway
C) 4.5 NM on either side of the airway
D) None of the above
3- Prior to departure from the Standard Pressure Region, pilot shall set the aircraft altimeter to:
A) Current altimeter setting of that aerodrome
B) To the standard pressure setting on the altimeter
C) To the current reported altimeter setting closest to the aerodrome
D) None of the above
4- Prior to commencing decsent with the intention to land, the altimeter:
A) Shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome
B) Shall be set to the nearest altimeter setting available
C) To the standard pressure setting
D) None of the above
5- Aircraft decsending from cruising flight level FL180 may reset the altimeter when:
A) When approaching FL180
B) After decsdending thru FL180
C) Before touch-down at aerodrome of intended landing
D) None of the above
6- Unless otherwised specified by ATC , aircraft progressing from one region to the next (Altimeter Setting region / Standard Altimeter Setting Region) shall make the change in the altimeter setting region while within the standard pressure region:
A) Prior to entering, or after leaving, the altimeter setting region
B) Prior to enter
C) After entering
D) None of the above
7- When climbing from the altimeter region into the standard pressure region, pilots shall set their altimeter to standard pressure:
A) Immediately after entering the standard pressure region
B) Immediately prior to entering the standard pressure region
C) Prior to departure
D) none of the above
8- When descending into the altimeter setting region, pilots shall set their altimeter to the:
A) Appropriate station altimeter setting immediately prior to decsending into the altimeter setting region
B) Appropriate station altimeter setting immediately after decsending into the altimeter setting region
C) Altimeter setting provided by FSS
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD & OPERATIONS VII
1- An aircraft operating IFR within designated mountain region, but outside area where MOCA, and MSA are provided, shall be flown:
A) At an altitude of at least 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM of the aircraft when in area 1 and 5
B) At least 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM when in area 2,3 and 4
C) A & B are correct
D) None of the above
2- Aircraft flying IFR along airways and air routes, within designated mountain regions, shall operated at an altitude which is at least 1000 feet higher then the minimum enroute IFR altitude, when:
A) There are large variations in temperature and/or pressure
B) Advised by FSS
C) Advised by Tower
D) None of the above
3- An aircraft operating IFR shall carry enough fuel:
A) For a turbojet, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome
B) To fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome, and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes
C) Where an alternate is not specify in the flight plan, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30 minutes
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
4- Alternate weather minima, for one useable precision approach is:
A) 600 - 2 or 300 - 1 above the lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater
B) Forecast condition must not specify CB within the time limit
C) Forecast condition must not specify rolling fog within the time limit
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD OPERATIONS VIII
1- Alternate weather minima, for two or more useable precision approach is:
A) 400 - 1 or 200 - 1/2 above the lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater
B) Forecast condition must not specify CB within the time limit
C) Forecast condition must not specify rolling fog within the time limit
D) None of the above
2- Alternate weather minima, when no IFR approach available:
A) Forecast weather must not be lower than 500 feet above a minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing.
B) Forecast condition must not specify CB within the time limit
C) Forecast condition must not specify rolling fog within the time limit
D) None of the above
3- In regards to wake turbulence, caution should be exercised whenever a flight is conducted anywhere:
A) Behind and less than 1000 feet below a large aircraft
B) Behind and less than 2000 feet below a large aircraft
C) Behind and less than 500 feet below a large aircraft
D) None of the above
4- Radar separation minima between aircraft is:
A) Heavy behind a heavy, 4 miles
B) Heavy behind a heavy, 6 miles
C) Heavy behind a heavy, 10 miles
D) None of the above
5- Pilots should be alert for wake turbulence when operating in the vicinity of aircraft climbing or descending through their altitude, and:
A) Aproximately 12-15 miles after passing 1000 feet below opposite direction traffic
B) Aproximately 12-15 miles behind and 1000 feet below same direction traffic
C) Both A & B are correct
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
FD OPERATIONS IX
1- Another way of expressing center of gravity location is in:
A) Percentage (%) of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)
B) Percentage (%) of the weight to lift ratio
C) Meters and percentage (%)
D) Weigh and distance
2- Weight shifting of a loaded aircraft (wihtin permissible max gross weight) is use:
A) To return the C.O.G. within the proper limits when it falls outside the AFT or FWD limits
B) To return the C.O.G within the proper limits when it falls outside the AFT limits
C) To return the C.O.G within the proper limits when it falls outside the FWD limits
D) To know how much weight to remove from the loaded aircraft.
3- Using the Weight Shift Formula, solve the following problem:
Aircraft Total Weigt: 7800 Lbs
Center of gravity station: 81. 5 Inches
AFT center of gravity limit: 80.5 Inches
How much cargo must be shifted from the AFT compartment at station 150 to the FWD compartment at station 30, to move the C.O.G wihtin the AFT limit.
A) 65 lbs
B) 120 lbs
C) 936 lbs
D) 153.8 Lbs
4- Using the Weight Shift Formula, solve the following problem:
Aircraft Total Weigt: 14 000 Lbs
Weight to be move: 300 Lbs
Center of gravity : 2 inches AFT of the C.O.G. Limit
How far does the cargo (300 lbs) has to move to be within C.O.G. limits?
A) 93.3 inches
B) 46.6 inches
C) 150 inches
D) 9.3 Inches
Copyright (C) BDA 2004
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The Aviation Weather Handbook, and Class Notes
METEOROLOGY I
1- When flying trough a front you would alter your heading to:
A) The left
B) The Right
C) In the direction of the front
D) You do not change your heading
2- At frontal passage the wind will:
A) Veer
B) Back
C) Remain the same
D) It back then veer
3- Night time surface cooling will produce:
A) Stability
B) Instability
C) Thunderstorms
D) Frontal lift
4- Surface heating will produce:
A) Stability
B) Instability
C) Thunderstorms
D) Frontal lift
5- A RIDGE is:
A) High pressure
B) Low pressure
C) Warm air aloft
D) Area of equal pressure
6- When a low pressure system is approaching the winds will:
A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) Remain the same
D) Stop completely
7- At sunset the winds will _________ in velocity.
A) Remain the same
B) Increase
C) Decrease
D) Shift
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY II
1-Temperature at which air must be cooled, at a given pressure,
to cause saturation is called:
A) Relative humidity
B) Latent heat
C) Dewpoint
D) Atmospheric pressure
2- Lapse rate is a:
A) Decrease of pressure with an increase of altitude
B) Increase of pressure with an increase of altitude
C) Decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude
D) Increase of temperature with an increase of altitude
3- The ICAO standard lapse rate is:
A) 3C / per 1000 feet
B) 1.5C / per 1000 feet
C) 1.98C / per 100 feet
D) 1.98C/ per 1000 feet
4- A parcel of ___air is less dense then a parcel of _____ air
A) Cold / warm
B) Warm / Cold
C) Cold / Saturated
D) Saturated / Dry
5- A steep lapse rate will give:
A) Extremely stable air
B) Stable air
C) Unstable air
D) Neutral air
6- The slope of a Cold front is usually:
A) 1 to 150 miles
B) 1 to 200 miles
C) 1 to 25 miles
D) 1 to 50 miles
7- At the passage of a cold front the pressure will:
A) Rise
B) Fall
C) Fall and rise
D) Rise and fall
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY III
1- The speed of a warm front is usually:
A) 5 to 10 Knots
B) 5 to 15 Knots
C) 5 to 20 Knots
D) 5 to 25 Knots
2- What is the atmospheric temperature at the tropopause.
A) +38C
B) -38C
C) -56C
D) - 49C in winter & -38C in summer
3- The tropopause is highest at the:
A) Poles
B) In winter
C) Equator
D) In summer
4- During a flight a pilot see a long line of Towering Cumulus clouds.
A) This indicate a cold front is approaching
B) This indicated a warm front is approaching
C) The freezing level will be found at a lower altitude
D) Stable air is to be expected
5- Clouds with bases between 100 to 300 feet which are formed by advection
over a cold surface, are called:
A) Cumulus
B) Nimbo-startus
C) Strato-Cumulus
D) Stratus
6- A pilot is flying in rain beneath an overcast layer. This implies:
A) The cloud tops are below the freezing level
B) The air mass is unstable with embedded ACC and TCU
C) The pilot will encounter snow and ice pellets
D) None of the above
7- A pilot is flying in clear air but encounter severe turbulence. This implies:
A) Cirrus and ciro-stratus in the vicinity
B) The pilot is flying near VIRGA
C) The pilot has encountered CAT
D) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY IV
1- AIRMET___ will succeed AIMET L1, if needed for this particular area.
A) AIRMET L3
B) AIRMET L1
C) AIRMET L2
D) AIRMET CR
2- On a weather chart, an occluded front would be depicted ______ in color.
A) Red and blue
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Purple
E) Brown
3- On a weather chart, fog would be depicted ______in color
A) Brown
B) Yellow
C) Green
D) No color associated with fog
3- Unless gusty winds are forecast, winds of _____ are not indicated in GFA
A) 30 knots or more
B) 30 knots or less
C) 20 knots or more
D) 20 knots or less
4- GFA is issued twice a day and covers the entire Canadian Domestic airspace
A) True
B) False
C) Depending on the Air Operator request
D) GFA are issued 6 times a day
5- When Thunderstorm is reported at a station, a pilot should be on the look out for:
A) Windshear
B) Heavy icing
C) Turbulence
D) Heavy precipitation
E) All of the above
6- Lightning activity is most likely when the air temperature is _____
A) +5C to -15C
B) 0C to -10C
C) -5C to -15C
D) +5C to -5C
7- Thunderstorm can also produce ______ .
A) Lenticular shape clouds
B) Lee Wave
C) Microburst
D) Hurricane
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY V
1- Deteriorating weather can be expected when conditions of _______ exist
A) Subsidence & steep lapse rate, followed by an inversion
B) Convection & adiabatic cooling
C) Divergence & adiabatic expansion
D) Advection & adiabatic heating
E) Convergence & adiabatic expansion
2- From ______________ look out below.
A) Low pressure to high pressure system
B) Warm air to cold air
C) High pressure to low pressure system
D) Cold air to warm air
3- Unstable air mass will be defined by:
A) Continuous, steady, light precipitation
B) Steady wind
C) Mediocre visibility in the low levels
D) Towering type clouds
4- ______ can be found in mountain wave.
A) Heavy icing
B) Poor Visibility
C) Towering type clouds
D) Heavy precipitation in cap clouds
5- Lee wave mechanical turbulence can be found up to:
A) 20 000 feet
B) 25 000 feet
C) 35 000 feet
D) 40 000 feet
6- In the northern hemisphere, the air flow_____ around a low
A) Counter clockwise
B) Clockwise
C) Parallel to the isobar
D) Parallel to the isotherm
7- Station pressure is the actual pressure at the observing station. To reduced it to
standard conditions an imaginary column of air is added. This is called:
A) Mean sea level pressure
B) ICAO setting
C) Density Altitude
D) Altimeter setting
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY VI
1- MVFR in the outlook section of a Graphic Area Forecast indicates:
A) Visibility between 3-5 SM
B) Visibility greater than 6 SM
C) Ceiling between 3000 and 5000 feet
D) Ceiling greater then 5000 feet
2- Fog of the Maritimes, forms when:
A) When moist tropical air over the Gulf Stream come in contact with it
B) When moist arctic air over Gulf Stream come in contact with cool air above the cold water
C) When dry and stable air over the Gulf Stream comes in contact with it
D) When moist tropical air over the Gulf Stream come in contact with cool air above the cold water
3- Steam fog is caused by ________________________.
A) Arctic air over cold water
B) Arctic air over warm water
C) Polar air over cold land surface
D) Polar air over warm water
4- In a high pressure system, which type of fog is most likely?
A) Radiation fog
B) Frontal fog
C) Advection fog
D) Upslope fog
5- This type of fog is found in moist air in extremely cold temperature
A) Ice fog
B) Steam fog
C) Coastal fog
D) Precipitation induced fog
6- Fog is usually a ___________ in contact with the ground
A) Cumulus
B) Nimbostratus cloud
C) Alto cloud
D) Stratus cloud
7- Ideal conditions for the formation of fog includes:
A) Low relative humidity
B) Small spread between temperature and dewpoint
C) High relative humidity and some cooling process
D) High temperature
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY VII
Click on picture for larger view
1- What type of chart is depicted above?
A) Significant High Level chart (SIG WX)
B) Significant Low Level chart (SIG WX)
C) 250 mb Significant weather chart (SIG WX)
D) 900 mb Significant Surface Analysis chart (SFC ANAL)
Click on picture for larger view
2- What level of turbulence should be expected in the chart above?
A) Moderate to severe turbulence
B) Moderate to severe turbulence due to CAT
C) Moderate turbulence from 26 000 to 37 000 feet
D) Severe turbulence from 26 000 to 37 000 feet
3- In reference to question 2, what is the cause of the turbulence?
A) CAT
B) Jet Stream
C) ISOL EMBD CB
D) Slope of the tropopause
Click on picture for larger view
4- In the diagram above, what is depicted in “A”
A) The height of the Jet stream
B) The height of CAT
C) The highest average height of the tropopause
D) The lowest average height of the tropopause
E) The average height of the Low pressure system
5- In the diagram above, what is depicted in “B”
A) The height of the Jet Stream
B) The average height of the turbulence level
C) The average height of the tropopause
D) The average height of the High pressure system
6- In the Upper Air Analysis chart, 500 mb, refers to approximately _____ of altitude
A) 5000 feet
B) 10 000 feet
C) 18 000 feet
D) 34 000 feet
7- In the Upper Air Analysis chart, 250 mb, refers to approximately _____ of altitude
A) 5000 feet
B) 10 000 feet
C) 18 000 feet
D) 34 000 feet
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
METEOROLOGY VIII
1- METAR weather reports are usually disseminated:
A) Everyday
B) On the hour, 24 hours a day
C) Every 6 hours, 24 hours a day
D) Upon requests by pilots
2- A SPECI report is issued when significant changes in weather conditions occur off the hour.
A) False. Only when CB’s are reported within 5 SM of the airport
B) There is no provision for SPECI on METAR
C) Yes
D) Only when approved by the FSS specialist
3- METAR CYSD 172000Z 30015KT 45SM R06/1000FT/D –SN BLSN RMK SN5
What is the date and time of the observation of the above METAR?
A) 17:00 hour UTC / Year 2000
B) 17:00 hour UTC / 20 day of the current month / Valid until 00:00 hour next day
C) 20:00 hour UTC / 17 day of the current month
D) 20:00 hour LOCAL / 17 day of the current month
4- I s there a reported ceiling in the above observation?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, OVC 1000 AGL
D) Yes, OVC 1000 ASL
5- METAR CYAW 121200Z 10002KT 7SM –SHGS OVC050 01/M03 A3015 RMK SC8 SLP219
What is the issued date and time of the above METAR?
A) Issued on the 12 day of the current month at 1200 UTC
B) Issued at 12:12 hour UTC and valid until the next day
C) Issued at 12:00 hour UTC and valid for the next 12 hours on the same day
D) None of the above
6- Is there a reported ceiling in the above observation?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Yes, OVC 5000 ASL
D) Yes, OVC 5000 AGL
Copyright (C) BDA 20067
METEOROLOGY IX
1- TAF CYSD 090435Z 090505 30015G40 3SM –SN......
On the TAF above, what is the period of coverage?
A) 4 September, recorded at 0300 UTC and valid starting 0500 UTC until 5 September at 0500 UTC
B) 4 September, 0300 UTC until 0500 UTC on the 5 September ends at 0500 UTC
C) 9 day of the current month, issued at 0435 UTC covering the period 9 day of the current month from 0500 UTC until the next day at 0500 UTC
D) 9 day of current month starting at 0435 UTC until 0500 the same day
E) None of the above
2-- The term BECMG or TEMPO is used to:
A) Forecast a significant change in sky conditions, and all valid layers are indicated
B) Forecast a temporary change of winds and clouds base
C) Changes the validity period of a forecast issued at regular intervals
D) The terms applied only for SIGMET or PIREP replacment
E) None of the above
3- TAF CYSD 171941Z 172017 10015KT P6SM SCT140 SCT250 FM1200Z 09010KT P6SM BKN100 TEMPO 1217 SCT100 SCT250 RMK NXT FCST BY 23Z
What is the issued time and date of the above TAF?
A) 17 day of current month issued at 1941UTC covering 17 day 2000 UTC until 1700 UTC the next day
B) 17 day issued at 1941 UTC covering 17 day 2000 UTC until the end of the day
C) The 17 day from 1941 UTC until the next day at 2000 UTC
D) None of the above
4- What is the wind?
A) 10 Knots at 015 degrees true
B) 10 Knots at 015 degrees magnetic
C) 100 degrees magnetic at 15 Knots
D) 100 degrees true at 15 Knots
E) Not reported
5- What is the sky condition?
A) Scattered at 1400 feet with tops at 2500 feet
B) Scattered at 14 000 feet with tops at 25 000 feet
C) Scattered at 14 000 feet and Scattered at 25 000 feet
D) Scattered at 14 and 25 thousand feet changing to lowering ceiling
E) P6SM
6- Any temporary changes in the forecast?
A) No
B) Yes
C) Between 1200 and 1700 UTC
D) From 1200 UTC
E) None of the above
7- What will happen at 1200 UTC?
A) The winds will diminished by 5 knots and the clouds will be lower with a ceiling
B) The winds will increase in strength and direction with a broken layer at 10 000 feet
C) The visibility will increase
D) The winds will diminished, the clouds will cleared up and the visibility will increase
E) None of the above
Copyright (C) BDA 20067
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The Flight Dispatcher Handbook, FTGU, and class notes
PERFORMANCE CHART I
Click on picture for larger view
1- Using the above chart calculate the fuel, time, and distance to climb based on the information provided.
* Departing Aerodrome: Pressure Altitude 6 000 Feet ASL
* Departing Airport OAT: +25C
* Cruise Pressure Altitude: 10 000 feet ASL
* Cruise OAT: +10C
A) 3 US Gallons / 5 Minutes / 6 NM
B) 3.5 US Gallons / 6.5 Minutes / 9 NM
C) 6.5 US Gallons / 11.5 Minutes / 15 NM
D) 3 US Gallons / 5 Minutes / 6 SM
Copyright (C) BDA 2006
PERFORMANCE CHART II
Click on picture for larger view
1- For a crosswind 60 degrees off the runway,____ is the maximum permissible wind speed for an aircraft with a maximum demonstrated permissible crosswind component of 12 knots
A) 09 Knots
B) 12 Knots
C) 14 Knots
D) 22 Knots
2- For a crosswind 30 degrees off the runway, ____ is the maximum permissible wind speed for an aircraft with a maximum demonstrated permissible crosswind component of 12 knots
A) 14 Knots
B) 19 Knots
C) 22 Knots
D) 25 Knots
3- For a crosswind 15 degrees off the runway, ____ is the maximum permissible wind speed for an aircraft with a maximum demonstrated permissible crosswind component of 12 knots
A) 12 Knots
B) 46 Knots
C) 50 Knots
D) 58 Knots
4- For a crosswind 90 degrees off the runway, ___ is the maximum permissible wind speed for an aircraft with a maximum demonstrated permissible crosswind component of 12 knots
A) 0 Knots
B) 12 Knots
C) 15 Knots
D) 17 Knots
Copyright (C) BDA 2005
PERFORMANCE CHART III
Click on picture for larger view
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Class Notes and Hand-Out, and AIM
VFR OPERATIONS I
1- On-the-air- radio test, when necessary, should be :
A) Conducted by a technician
B) At least three minutes long to ensure they need not be repeated
C) Should be short (No more then 10 seconds)
D) Conducted using the ICAO phonetic alphabet only
E) All of the above
2- The proper way to say your altitude is “4500 feet” to ATC /FSS is :
A) Four thousand fife zero zero feet
B) Four thousand fife hundred feet
C) Four point fife feet
D) Forty fife hundred feet
E) All of the above
3- The term “CAVOK” means :
A) Ceiling and visibility are OK
B) No clouds and no precipitation are foreseen, the visibility is plus 5 SM
C) No clouds below 5000 feet and no precipitation reported
D) No clouds below 5000 feet, visibility is plus 6 SM and no precipitation
E) All of the above
4- What is the difference between an ATC Clearance and an ATC Instruction :
A) A Clearance is issued by FSS and an Instruction is issued for IFR traffic
B) A Clearance is issued by a Control Tower and an Instruction is issued by an FSS
C) A Clearance must be obeyed, but an Instruction can be turned down, either VFR or IFR
D) A Clearance can be turned down, but an Instruction must be complied with
5- The transponder permits positive identification of the aircraft to ATC. Mode C provides :
A) Position and altitude information
B) Position and airspeed information
C) Position and speed only
D) Altitude, position and airspeed information
VFR OPERATIONS II
I- In VFR flight in low level airspace, unless instructed by ATC, your
transponder code should be:
A) Code 1200 at or bellow 18 000 feet ASL or 1400 above 18 000 feet ASL
B) Code 1200 at or bellow 12 500 feet AGL or 1400 above 12 500 feet AGL
C) Code 1200 at or bellow 12 500 feet ASL or 1400 above 12 500 feet ASL
D) Code 1400 at or bellow 12 500 feet ASL or 1200 above 12 500 feet ASL
2- You experience communication failure in Class B or C airspace, you would :
A) Select 7600 and land as soon as possible
B) Select 7600 on the transponder , comply with NORDO procedures and land at the nearest and most suitable aerodrome
C) Select 7700 on the transponder, comply with NORDO procedures and return to the
departures aerodrome for landing, aircraft with communication failure have priority
D) Select 7500 on the transponder, follow NORDO procedures
3- You are approaching a control zone. Where would you find the proper frequency ?
A) In the Aeronautical Information Publication
B) In the Canada Flight Supplement or on the appropriate VFR aeronautical chart
C) In the Canadian Air Pilot handbook
D) By contacting FSS on 126.7
4- VDF steer is available at some FSS. This procedure uses VHF
transmission from the aircraft to :
A) Assist aircraft to descent trough poor visibility and clouds
B) Provide steering, bearing and homing information to the aircraft in flight
C) Provide distance from station or beacon information to the aircraft in SVFR conditions
D) Verify accuracy of aircraft radio-navigation equipment, on request from the pilot
5- A UNICOM is a :
A) Private Advisory service at an uncontrolled airport
B) Radio-communication relay service by FSS for uncontrolled airport
C) Radio-communication for aircraft in flight and FSS
D) Radio-communication advisory services for active runway information
VFR OPERATIONS III
1- A DME is a Navigational-aid that :
A) Measure aircraft distance from another in flight for conflict avoidance
B) Measure aircraft altitude over the station
C) Measures aircraft distance from the station
D) Measures aircraft distance and altitude from VORTAC and NDB stations along your flight
2- In a VFR flight, to determine if you are using the proper radio-beacon, you would :
A) Verify the frequency in the proper publication for the intended radio-beacon
B) Verify and listen to the morse-code identifier for the proper radio-beacon
C) Verify the strength of the received signal by listening to the morse-code identifier
D) Verify the frequency on the aeronautical navigation chart
3- An ATF is used to:
A) Broadcast your position when overflying an uncontrolled airports
B) Broadcast PIREP’s when flying in sparsely settled regions
C) Ensured that all aircraft are using the same frequency at uncontrolled aerodromes
D) Ensured that all aircraft are using the same frequency when taxiing on the active runway
4- When departing an aerodrome using a MF or ATF, you would :
A) Request permission to taxi on the active runway
B) Verify the frequency in use and broadcast your intentions
C) Broadcast your departure intentions, and listen for any response before moving on the
active runway
D) Verify traffic, broadcast intention and flight plan and departed cautiously the zone
5- Pilots in grave emergency and requiring immediate assistance, should begin
radio message with :
A) Help, Help, Help
B) Mayday, Mayday, Mayday
C) Pan, Pan, Pan
D) Emergency, Emergency, Emergency
Copyright (C) BDA 2002
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